I have a basic doubt in understanding the concept of equivalent inductance. When two inductor coils are in series the equivalent inductance is calculated as
\$ L_{eq} = L1+L2 \pm 2M \$ (depending on the dot convention)
where L1 and L2 are independent coil self inductance and M is the mutual inductance dependent on coupling between the coils k (coupling coefficient). M is calculated as
\$M = k \sqrt{L1. L2} \$
k can take values from 0 to 1, 0 for no coupling and 1 for perfect coupling between the coils.
So if two coils are placed adjacent to each other very far where there is no coupling between the coils then k = 0 and \$ L_{eq} = L1+L2 \$ because M = 0. If the coils are so far that L2 has no impact on L1 should we still consider L2 for calculating \$L_{eq} \$ ?
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